Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 29.06.2025 00:45
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
How is it not psychopathic to use someone for sex, even if they agree?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
O'Malley's dad 'super relaxed' cornering title bout - ESPN
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.